The question "A friend to all is a friend to none" - Aristotle. What does this exactly mean? was closed five years ago, roughly a week after it was posted. The argument in favor of closing it (to judge from several people who posted comments beneath the question) seems to have been that the poster should have asked it on the Philosophy Stack Exchange site because Aristotle.
But the question is about what the expression (which is proverbial in English as well as in other languages) means as used by English speakers—not specifically what Aristotle meant when he said something similar 2300 years ago. Arguing that asking about the meaning of "a friend to all is a friend to none" in English is off-topic at EL&U because it may have originated in ancient Greece and may have philosophical overtones is like arguing that asking about the meaning of "sour grapes" in English is off-topic here for the same reasons.
I recognize that some close voters may have seen the question as inviting opinion-based answers, but that is arguably a danger of any "meaning" question—and we have lots of open ones on this site. As long as a question boils down to "What do people generally mean when they use [a particular idiom, proverb, or other phrase in widespread use in English]," I think it is properly on-topic at this site.
Most strikingly, although the question was open on EL&U for only a very brief time, it has drawn more than 49,000 page views over the ensuing five years. Either a lot of philosophy majors have wandered onto the wrong Stack Exchange site by mistake or there is a lot of interest in the posted question as one of English language and usage. I think the latter explanation is the likelier one, and I think the question should be reopened. What do you think?