Please advise if the use of 'time-sensitive' in the title is right. I ask questions about writing over different time periods and want to tag questions more precisely. So should we further array or decompose the expansive category Modern English?

For example, for questions about syntax in Shakespeare, should I use the tag, more specific than ?
Also, what tag for late 1700s/early 1800s writing (barring the sweeping 'Modern English')?

I asked the general question here.

  • What are your objectives in tagging these questions more precisely? For example, to supply additional information to potential answers, to help refine searches, or to help your future self find your own questions? I ask because it will help frame the question more clearly and thereby inform our answers.
    – Dan Bron
    Jan 22, 2015 at 17:41
  • 3
    I don't really see much point in going beyond archaic for tagging. Syntax/vocabulary is constantly changing, and quite often "obsolete" forms are retained in certain regions/dialects. Trying to assign "no-longer-in-widespread-current-use" to more exact time-frames strikes me as problematic in the extreme. Especially since querents often don't even know a usage is obsolete when they ask about it here. Jan 22, 2015 at 17:57
  • @DanBron Yes, all of them, but also to benefit and help anyone seeking or interested in content concerning a particular time period. Please do feel free to edit my OP! Thank you effusively as ever!
    – user50720
    Jan 22, 2015 at 18:11
  • @Law, I was more asking what prompted you, specifically, to ask this question. What was your train of thought / thought process? What was the original or primary impetus?
    – Dan Bron
    Jan 22, 2015 at 19:09
  • @DanBron I asked this in the interest of a more precise way to tag and seek content concerning a particular time period
    – user50720
    Jan 22, 2015 at 19:37
  • @Law, Yep, makes sense. Personally I don't have the rep to edit the tag wiki, so I'll leave the final determination here to the powers that be. (Though I do agree with FF's concerns that what is archaic in one idiolect may be current in another; for example, some of the idioms used by my friends from the southern US sound old-fashioned to my northern ear.)
    – Dan Bron
    Jan 22, 2015 at 19:42

1 Answer 1


Part of the use of tags is the [question] use of tags. The other part is the [viewer] use of tags. If one uses tags and another does not, it's just unnecessary tagging.

Tagging should be as precise as to be uniquely useful and no further, and especially no overlap with another tag in meaning. This doesn't mean that a question cannot have multiple tags. It just means each tag is independent of the other tags attached to the question.

This is my opinion, and it would be easily argued that this aspect has been violated already (before I made this statement or even had a say in it, so don't ask me to justify it.)

If you're going to ask for a specific time period, then why not a specific year?

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