From time to time you encounter a meaning request, and provide a word which is obviously directly relevent.
You reference your definition, provide a sample phrase etc. Yet someone still downvotes your answer.
For clarification I am referring to questions here that are well formed.
My question is, does someone need a valid objective reason to downvote an answer, or can they do it in isolation, simply because they feel like clicking the down button in front of them?
I have read this which discusses the cases of flagrant abusive downvoting.
I've also read this on tactical downvoting which references the difficulty in proving a down vote was tactical.
What I havent been able to glean, is if it is unacceptble for someone to downvote a post without an objectively good cause, or if they can just simply say "i didn't like it", in which case I will just ignore these instances.
They aren't all that frequent maybe a couple of times a day, and thankfully the upvotes are so weighted that your net gain from answering a question well, even with dimwitted down votes is still positive.
But my question is, is it OK for someone to downvote a question without an objectively good reason for doing so? If it is not, should I continue to do what I just did and flag the question, with a comment along the lines of "there is no objective reason to downvote this question" can you investigate.
I am conscious of the fact moderators are busy and I don't want to be wasting their time, but at the same time, It seems entirely perverse that there are some individuals going about down voting questions with zero objective justification.