The question linked to above is interesting for phoneticians and other linguists because, surprisingly perhaps, there is very unlikely to be any difference in voicing in the last segments of the words whores and horse despite what we think our ears are telling us.
For this reason the question is noteworthy because it raises the issue of how we are able to differentiate between the two words. And that is a story for linguists.
Can you help reopen this question if you have sufficient rep, please? Thanks.
Edit note: This question is now reopened. Thank you to the reopen voters. I think the question's potentially very useful for readers and for the site.