I downvoted Karl's answer to this question through carelessness and ignorance, but I can't now reverse my vote. Is there any way round this?
I'm still (forelornly, it seems) hoping for more feedback on the question. I now realise I've probably been mistaken for decades in thinking that the Fanny Adams origin of Fuck All was an urban myth. But I can't help thinking there's some 'hidden' principle allowing this apparently quirky turn of phrase to become so widespread, with such a range of different expletives.
In the absence of any more definitive exposition of this principle (MrHen's answer moves in that direction but doesn't quite do it for me), I feel I must formally Accept Karl's answer. Does this mean I may as well abandon all hope of anyone else posting an answer that addresses the underlying mechanism facilitating the widespread adoption of the usage?