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Is this question Why are ships always female? really a duplicate of the Pronoun question: referring to inanimate objects as 'he' or 'she' second?

While there are some general remarks about ships in the other question it's all rather unspecific. The most likely reasons regarding ships are not mentioned at all.

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    I think it is a duplicate. For the ship-specific question, everything is answered in the 'pronoun' question. But It may be worthwhile to keep the ship question as it might directly be answered just for 'ship'.
    – Mitch
    Aug 30 '16 at 17:34
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    I'm voting to reopen because the ship-specific answer is well-supported and wouldn't fit well in the other answer as-is.
    – Lawrence
    Aug 30 '16 at 23:19
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I think it is a duplicate. The answers to the other question do mention ships. I think the question "Why are ships always female" should be edited by the original poster to clarify what information is needed before it is reopened. The question in the title doesn't match with the question in the body ("Is it unique to ships?") and it's not clear which question best reflects the original intent of the post.

There is also another related question that focuses more on ships: Is it a good practice to refer to countries, ships etc using the feminine form?

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