This question was put on hold shortly after being asked. In the meantime, two established users provided comments that seem to contradict each other, and another answered. The question does not explicitly mention that the asker consulted a dictionary, however a dictionary definition does not necessarily help here. The question provides background rationale for the quandary.
Why was it put on hold, and what is the (blatantly obvious) answer?
So far as I recall, I posted my comment containing "the obvious answer" - substantially the same as the overwhelmingly upvoted one - to justify my "Migrate to ELL" closevote (I did explicitly make that point again in a later comment.
At some later point (after the question had been closed and reopened), I posted another comment pointing out that it covered the same ground as Is “most” equivalent to “a majority of”? (asked long before migration to ELL was an available option here).
I don't want to get bogged down in a back-and-forth tug-of-war here, but it's worth pointing out that the question itself has barely a third as many upvotes as the top answer. I think that reflects the fact that almost all native speakers know the answer (so it's not a very interesting question).
I can't vote again to migrate the question, but I still think it belongs on ELL. Anyway, OP asked why it was put on hold in the first place - I had and still have my reason, even if there weren't / won't be enough others voting in the same direction at the same time.
If you ask a "what does this word mean" question for a word such as "most" on English Language and Usage, it is considered an ELL question and is usually migrated, or put on hold. It is necessary to make your questions more specific so this does not occur in the future. Hope this helps :)
